There are scholars who argue that Shakespeare is overrated, given there were other playwrights and writers of equal and surpassing talent at the time.
This is not really true. If you look at Shakespeare's contemporaries the really important players (with a significant literary legacy) are Christopher Marlowe and Ben Jonson. Marlowe has one great play (Dr Faustus) and a few good plays, but nothing like Shakespeare's body of work. If you compare The Jew of Malta to The Merchant of Venice then the difference in quality is plain to see. Jonson is much closer to the later restoration playwrights, so his plays are less serious and a lot bawdier. I'd argue that there are two great plays (Volpone and The Alchemist) but neither reaches anything like the heights of Hamlet, Macbeth, Lear, Othello...etc.
Certainly, you'll be able to find 'scholarship' that argues for the superiority of other 16th century dramatists, but I'm putting 'scholarship' in inverted commas for a reason
Was Shakespeare a great playwright? That's a huge debate. But he sure as hell was/is a POPULAR playwright, so he obviously did everything according to the "success" rules (clichés?) of the time.
Likewise, this is not actually really true. There is very little serious scholarship that doesn't consider Shakespeare to be a great playwright (and why would there be?). Obviously, some plays are missteps and not up to the quality of his greatest works but there can be no disputing, by those who've read his work, that he is a masterful playwright.
Which brings me to harmonica44 original, distressing point. If you are looking for episodes of Law & Order or CSI then you're not going to find it. But calling Shakespeare out on grounds of 'insufficient plot' is just ignorant. Is there insufficient plot in Hamlet? Really?!? It suggests to me that you've not read or watched closely enough.
As for the use of analogy, it's important to make two broad considerations. The first is that Shakespeare's plays are written predominantly in verse (the prose sections tend to indicate that a character is 'unsophisticated'). As such, it is, essentially, poetry, and ought to be read in the same light as his sonnets. Even making linguistic comparisons between Shakespeare and playwrights like Becket, Pinter or Osborne, is foolish as it misunderstands the way that language is being used. Consider that most of his plays are written mainly in iambic pentameter and you'll see that this is grand, masterful poetry, not simply a case of actions being represented by words. Secondly, the context of the period meant that analogy was completely ubiquitous. There are very few Renaissance texts that don't deal- to some extent- with an analogy. Utopia is entirely an analogy for society, The Faerie Queene is entirely an analogy for religion, The Flea is entirely an analogy for sex...etc. It comes from a climate of conservatism and becomes a game for writers, and Shakespeare is as adept at it as anyone. The use of analogy is a key Renaissance conceit and is not just there to make it wordier.
You don't have to like Shakespeare, but feeling the need to explain that you're 'not saying I'm a better writer than Shakespeare' makes me want to beat my head against my desk.